alright heres the story my friend got into an accident 3 months ago. heres how. he was at a light at night, the turn he wanted was the next street up. he looked behind him to see if anyone was coming so he could back up to go into the other lane going straight. he checked and was SURE no one was behind him, while backing up, some lady was exiting an entrance and he didnt see her, because at the time he looked behind no one was behind him. and he hit her car.

so whos to blame? him or her?

alright so her insurance finally sent him some papers asking my friend to survey how much damage on his car was. this is a good three months later mind you. three months ago at the time my friend didnt have insurance on his car. (he thought he did at the time, but it turned out that his insurance expired two months before the accident happened) during that time he has got insurance. However, he told the lady and the cop his car was insured with his old insurance company when the cop came for the police report. if he is to blame, his current insurance should pay for her damages right? even though 3 months ago the accident happened and he DIDNT have insurance. help him out

what i find weird is that her insurance only NOW contacts him about the accident, three months later. Would it be better for him to just contact the lady and tell her he's going to pay for her damage since he might get in trouble for not having an insurance at the time?