Originally Posted by Buyimports2

Are you getting this from layman's logic or do you have a math source to prove it?

Originally Posted by Epoch

I can't believe that his arguement for taking a fraction that cannot be properly expressed as a precise number, taking our closest decimal approximation, and then using the failure of a decimal approximation to prove such a thing.

It's a cute theory, yes, but inherently flawed as we're dealing with the mathmatical equivilent of apples to oranges.