Originally Posted by Nightshade
Ok I see your point and I do concede to your argument.
But a question:
Wouldn't you see religious inflection as being the same as pushing "x" religion on the people?
For sake of example only....if my religion sees nothing wrong at all with abortion in early term, but a decision is passed on the argument of morality using religious arguments to plead the case, and these arguments come from (argument only) a Catholic group. Doesn't this have the same weight as pushing one religion on the majority of the people because the argument and decision was won through a single religions argument or belief?
I would agree if government took something that was exclusive to Catholicism and either passed it as law or used it as a basis to pass a law than this would violate the establishment of religion clause in the Constitution.
However if there is no specific religion identified that is used to create or pass a law and it is just considered "religion" in general I do not have an issue with it as no specific religion is being used. If this happens to go against a smaller, minority religion than that happens to be the case. But this country is run by politicians elected by the majority and minority groups are constantly left on the side. There will always be opposition to any law but that does not mean that we cannot pass it because we do not have 100% approval.