Originally Posted by Nightshade

Ok I see your point and I do concede to your argument.

But a question:

Wouldn't you see religious inflection as being the same as pushing "x" religion on the people?

For sake of example only....if my religion sees nothing wrong at all with abortion in early term, but a decision is passed on the argument of morality using religious arguments to plead the case, and these arguments come from (argument only) a Catholic group. Doesn't this have the same weight as pushing one religion on the majority of the people because the argument and decision was won through a single religions argument or belief?